Let \(X \subseteq A\text{.}\)
If \(A\) is finite, then by Theorem 6.6.5 (1) we know that \(X\) is finite, and hence it is countable. Now assume that \(A\) is countably infinite. We will prove the theorem for the special case that \(A = \N\text{.}\) For the general case, we observe that if \(A\) is countably infinite, then there is a bijective function \(f : A \to\N\text{,}\) and the desired result follows from the fact that \(X \# f (X)\text{,}\) which holds by Exercise 6.5.4, and that \(f (X)\) is a subset of \(\N\text{.}\)
Suppose that \(A = \N\text{.}\) If \(X\) is finite, then it is countable by definition, and there is nothing to prove. Now suppose that \(X\) is infinite.
By the Well-Ordering Principle (Theorem 6.2.5), there is a unique element \(b\in X\) such that \(b \leq x\) for all \(x\in X\text{.}\) Let \(k : G(X) \to X\) be defined as follows. Let \(g\in G(X)\text{.}\) Then \(g\in F (\{1, \dots, n\}, X)\) for some \(n\in\N\text{,}\) which means that \(g\) is a function \(\{1, \dots, n\} \to X\text{.}\) It follows from Exercise 6.6.3 that \(g\) cannot be surjective, and hence \(X \sm g(\{1, \dots, n\}) \neq\es\) . Using the Well-Ordering Principle again we see that there is a unique element \(z_g\in X \sm g(\{1, \dots, n\})\) such that \(z_g \leq x\) for all \(x\in X \sm g(\{1, \dots, n\})\text{.}\) We then let \(k(g) = z_g\text{.}\)
We can apply Theorem 6.4.8 to \(b\) and \(k\) as above, and we deduce that there is a unique function \(f : \N \to A\) such that \(f (1) = b\text{,}\) and that \(f (n + 1) = k( f_|\{1,...,n\})\) for all \(n\in\N\text{.}\) Hence \(f (1) \leq x\) for all \(x\in X\text{,}\) and if \(n\in\N\text{,}\) then \(f (n + 1)\in X \sm [ f |_{1,...,n}](\{1, \dots, n\}) = X \sm f (\{1, \dots, n\})\text{,}\) and so \(f (n + 1) \leq y\) for all \(y\in X \sm f (\{1, \dots, n\})\text{.}\)
Let \(r\in\N\text{.}\) Then \(f (r) \leq y\) for all \(y\in X \sm f (\{1, \dots, r - 1\})\text{,}\) where we think of \(\{1, \dots, 0\}\) as the empty set when \(r = 1\text{.}\) Because \(f (r + 1)\in X \sm f (\{1, \dots, \}) \subseteq X - f (\{1, \dots, r - 1\})\text{,}\) it follows that \(f (r) < f (r + 1)\text{.}\) By Exercise 6.3.4 we see that \(f (n) ≥ n\) for all \(n\in\N\text{.}\)
We now show that \(f\) is bijective. Let \(i, j\in\N\text{.}\) Suppose that \(i \neq j\text{.}\) Without loss of generality assume that \(i < j\text{.}\) Then \(i \leq j - 1\text{,}\) and also \(j > 1\text{,}\) so that \(j - 1\in\N\text{.}\) It follows that \(f (i)\in f (\{1, \dots, j - 1\})\text{,}\) and as observed above we know that \(f ( j)\in X \sm f (\{1, \dots, j - 1\})\text{.}\) Therefore \(f (i) \neq f ( j)\text{,}\) and we deduce that f is injective.
Let \(m\in X\text{.}\) Suppose that \(m \neq f (p)\) for any \(p\in\N\text{.}\) Using a previous observation we know that \(m \leq f(m)\text{,}\) and hence \(m < f(m)\text{.}\) On the other hand, we saw above that \(f(m) \leq y\) for all\(y\in X \sm f (\{1, \dots, m - 1\})\text{.}\) By hypothesis on \(m\) we know that \(m \not\in f (\{1, \dots, m - 1\})\text{,}\) and it follows that \(f(m) \leq m\text{,}\) which is a contradiction. Therefore \(f\) is surjective.
We conclude that \(f\) is bijective, which implies that \(X \#\N\text{.}\) Hence \(X\) is countably infinite, and therefore countable.